09 June, 2009

Understanding the theological terms "exegesis" and "eisegesis"

This is a response to someone being critical of Catholic exegesis and my use of these theological terms.

Understanding the theological terms "exegesis" and "eisegesis"

This is a response to someone being critical of Catholic exegesis and my use of these theological terms.

These terms are used by both Catholic Christians and non-Catholic Christians. I was taught these terms in Protestant seminaries while studying biblical hermeneutics. The meaning would employ agreeing with and considering the whole context of Scriptures as opposed to going to Scriptures to support one's own theological speculations. In other words, it is an interpretation that takes into account all of the Scriptures eliminating all contradictions to one's preceived speculations. It is an approach to Scriptures that invokes learning rather than theological speculation. It is a scholarly approach to Scriptures rather than a prejudicial approach which is contrary to your speculation of the meaning being:

Exegesis - agreeing with the Catholic church
Eisegesis - disagreeing with the Catholic church

The fact is that all Scriptures do agree with the Catholic Church as one without prejudice should suppose as the Scriptures were approved by the Church as suitable for teaching and inspired. The New Testament was even written by the first century Catholic Christians. In regards to this, the Bible clearly records Christ's teaching that all authority is given to His Church and that would include the infallible interpretation of His Word. How else could His teaching of an enduring deposit of truth be true if His Church would teach error? Jesus did not lie in His promises to His Church and humanity.

Since you use the example in Scriptures of "all have sinned", how do you reconcile your eisegesis with the fact that Scriptures state that these two people called by God are called in those same Scriptures as "full of grace"? Are they full of grace except for a little bit of sinfullness and if so where is the evidence of your speculation from Scriptures? Obviously through the miracles of God there are exceptions from the natural sinful state of man and we can thank God that there are such exceptions. True understanding of Scriptures through responsible exegesis would recognise these exceptions and realize that "all have sinned" refers to the natural state of man and not the state of man after divine intervention through the miracles of God. Otherwise we are creating contradiction from our own eisegesis. God bless!

In Christ
Fr. Joseph

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